Latest IAPP CIPT PDF and Dumps (2024) Free Exam Questions Answers
Pass Your Information Privacy Technologist CIPT Exam on Dec 19, 2024 with 222 Questions
CIPT Certified Professional salary
The average salary of a CIPT Certified Expert in
- England - 50,632 POUND
- India - 12,42,327 INR
- Europe - 55,347 EURO
- United State - 70,247 USD
Prerequisites
There are no particular pre-conditions for the final exam, only that the candidate should have basic knowledge of data privacy and the regulations around it. Plus, it is an added advantage if the candidate has hands-on experience as a data privacy specialist.
NEW QUESTION # 94
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Chuck, a compliance auditor for a consulting firm focusing on healthcare clients, was required to travel to the client's office to perform an onsite review of the client's operations. He rented a car from Finley Motors upon arrival at the airport as so he could commute to and from the client's office. The car rental agreement was electronically signed by Chuck and included his name, address, driver's license, make/model of the car, billing rate, and additional details describing the rental transaction. On the second night, Chuck was caught by a red light camera not stopping at an intersection on his way to dinner. Chuck returned the car back to the car rental agency at the end week without mentioning the infraction and Finley Motors emailed a copy of the final receipt to the address on file.
Local law enforcement later reviewed the red light camera footage. As Finley Motors is the registered owner of the car, a notice was sent to them indicating the infraction and fine incurred. This notice included the license plate number, occurrence date and time, a photograph of the driver, and a web portal link to a video clip of the violation for further review. Finley Motors, however, was not responsible for the violation as they were not driving the car at the time and transferred the incident to AMP Payment Resources for further review. AMP Payment Resources identified Chuck as the driver based on the rental agreement he signed when picking up the car and then contacted Chuck directly through a written letter regarding the infraction to collect the fine.
After reviewing the incident through the AMP Payment Resources' web portal, Chuck paid the fine using his personal credit card. Two weeks later, Finley Motors sent Chuck an email promotion offering 10% off a future rental.
What is the strongest method for authenticating Chuck's identity prior to allowing access to his violation information through the AMP Payment Resources web portal?
- A. By requiring Chuck to call AMP Payment Resources directly and provide his date of birth and home address.
- B. By requiring Chuck use the last 4 digits of his driver's license number in combination with a unique PIN provided within the violation notice.
- C. By requiring Chuck use his credit card number in combination with the last 4 digits of his driver's license.
- D. By requiring Chuck use the rental agreement number in combination with his email address.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The strongest method for authenticating Chuck's identity involves a combination of something he knows (the last 4 digits of his driver's license number) and something he possesses (a unique PIN provided within the violation notice). This two-factor authentication method increases security by ensuring that even if one piece of information is compromised, unauthorized access is still prevented. This approach aligns with best practices for secure authentication, as outlined by the IAPP, which emphasizes multi-factor authentication to enhance the security of sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Why is first-party web tracking very difficult to prevent?
- A. Regulatory frameworks are not concerned with web tracking.
- B. The available tools to block tracking would break most sites' functionality.
- C. Consumers enjoy the many benefits they receive from targeted advertising.
- D. Most browsers do not support automatic blocking.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 96
In the realm of artificial intelligence, how has deep learning enabled greater implementation of machine learning?
- A. By using hand-coded classifiers like edge detection filters so that a program can identify where an object starts and stops.
- B. By using algorithmic approaches such as decision tree learning and inductive logic programming.
- C. By hand coding software routines with a specific set of instructions to accomplish a task.
- D. By increasing the size of neural networks and running massive amounts of data through the network to train it.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://towardsdatascience.com/notes-on-artificial-intelligence-ai-machine-learning-ml-and-deep- learning-dl-for-56e51a2071c2
NEW QUESTION # 97
A vendor has been collecting data under an old contract, not aligned with the practices of the organization.
Which is the preferred response?
- A. Destroy the data
- B. Update the contract to bring the vendor into alignment.
- C. Continue the terms of the existing contract until it expires.
- D. Terminate the contract and begin a vendor selection process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a vendor collects data under an outdated contract that does not align with current organizational practices, the preferred response is to update the contract. This approach ensures that the vendor's data practices align with the current privacy standards and requirements of the organization, maintaining compliance and protecting data subjects. Terminating the contract or destroying the data may be extreme steps that could disrupt business operations or lead to data loss. Continuing the existing contract without any updates leaves the organization exposed to non-compliance risks.
NEW QUESTION # 98
What must be used in conjunction with disk encryption?
- A. Increased CPU speed.
- B. A strong password.
- C. A digital signature.
- D. Export controls.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disk encryption protects data at rest by encrypting the entire disk. To access the encrypted data, a user must provide a key, which is often derived from a password. For disk encryption to be effective, the password used must be strong to prevent unauthorized access. A weak password can undermine the security of the encrypted data, making it vulnerable to brute force attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following is considered a client-side IT risk?
- A. Security policies focus solely on internal corporate obligations.
- B. An employee stores his personal information on his company laptop
- C. An organization increases the number of applications on its server.
- D. IDs used to avoid the use of personal data map to personal data in another database.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 100
SCENARIO
Tom looked forward to starting his new position with a U.S -based automobile leasing company (New Company), now operating in 32 states. New Company was recently formed through the merger of two prominent players, one from the eastern region (East Company) and one from the western region (West Company). Tom, a Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT), is New Company's first Information Privacy and Security Officer. He met today with Dick from East Company, and Harry, from West Company. Dick and Harry are veteran senior information privacy and security professionals at their respective companies, and continue to lead the east and west divisions of New Company. The purpose of the meeting was to conduct a SWOT (strengths/weaknesses/opportunities/threats) analysis for New Company. Their SWOT analysis conclusions are summarized below.
Dick was enthusiastic about an opportunity for the New Company to reduce costs and increase computing power and flexibility through cloud services. East Company had been contemplating moving to the cloud, but West Company already had a vendor that was providing it with software-as-a-service (SaaS). Dick was looking forward to extending this service to the eastern region. Harry noted that this was a threat as well, because West Company had to rely on the third party to protect its data.
Tom mentioned that neither of the legacy companies had sufficient data storage space to meet the projected growth of New Company, which he saw as a weakness. Tom stated that one of the team's first projects would be to construct a consolidated New Company data warehouse. Tom would personally lead this project and would be held accountable if information was modified during transmission to or during storage in the new data warehouse.
Tom, Dick and Harry agreed that employee network access could be considered both a strength and a weakness. East Company and West Company had strong performance records in this regard; both had robust network access controls that were working as designed. However, during a projected year-long transition period, New Company employees would need to be able to connect to a New Company network while retaining access to the East Company and West Company networks.
Which statement is correct about addressing New Company stakeholders' expectations for privacy?
- A. New Company's commitment to stakeholders ends when the stakeholders' data leaves New Company.
- B. New Company would best meet consumer expectations for privacy by adhering to legal requirements.
- C. New Company should expect consumers to read the company's privacy policy.
- D. New Company should manage stakeholder expectations for privacy even when the stakeholders' data is not held by New Company.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 101
What would be an example of an organization transferring the risks associated with a data breach?
- A. Encrypting sensitive personal data during collection and storage
- B. Applying industry standard data handling practices to the organization' practices.
- C. Using a third-party service to process credit card transactions.
- D. Purchasing insurance to cover the organization in case of a breach.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 102
What is true of providers of wireless technology?
- A. They are typically exempt from data security regulations.
- B. They can see all unencrypted data that crosses the system.
- C. They have the legal right in most countries to control and use any data on their systems.
- D. They routinely backup data that crosses their system.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following does NOT illustrate the 'respect to user privacy' principle?
- A. Developing a consent management self-service portal that enables the data subjects to review the details of consent provided to an organization.
- B. Enabling Data Subject Access Request (DSARs) that provide rights for correction, deletion, amendment and rectification of personal information.
- C. Filing breach notification paperwork with data protection authorities which detail the impact to data subjects.
- D. Implementing privacy elements within the user interface that facilitate the use of technology by any visually-challenged users.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 104
SCENARIO
Kyle is a new security compliance manager who will be responsible for coordinating and executing controls to ensure compliance with the company's information security policy and industry standards. Kyle is also new to the company, where collaboration is a core value. On his first day of new-hire orientation, Kyle's schedule included participating in meetings and observing work in the IT and compliance departments.
Kyle spent the morning in the IT department, where the CIO welcomed him and explained that her department was responsible for IT governance. The CIO and Kyle engaged in a conversation about the importance of identifying meaningful IT governance metrics. Following their conversation, the CIO introduced Kyle to Ted and Barney. Ted is implementing a plan to encrypt data at the transportation level of the organization's wireless network. Kyle would need to get up to speed on the project and suggest ways to monitor effectiveness once the implementation was complete. Barney explained that his short-term goals are to establish rules governing where data can be placed and to minimize the use of offline data storage.
Kyle spent the afternoon with Jill, a compliance specialist, and learned that she was exploring an initiative for a compliance program to follow self-regulatory privacy principles. Thanks to a recent internship, Kyle had some experience in this area and knew where Jill could find some support. Jill also shared results of the company's privacy risk assessment, noting that the secondary use of personal information was considered a high risk.
By the end of the day, Kyle was very excited about his new job and his new company. In fact, he learned about an open position for someone with strong qualifications and experience with access privileges, project standards board approval processes, and application-level obligations, and couldn't wait to recommend his friend Ben who would be perfect for the job.
Which data practice is Barney most likely focused on improving?
- A. Inventory.
- B. Deletion
- C. Sharing
- D. Retention.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 105
What must be done to destroy data stored on "write once read many" (WORM) media?
- A. The media must be physically destroyed.
- B. The media must be reformatted.
- C. The data must be made inaccessible by encryption.
- D. The erase function must be used to remove all data.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 106
Truncating the last octet of an IP address because it is NOT needed is an example of which privacy principle?
- A. Use Limitation
- B. Security Safeguards
- C. Data Minimization
- D. Purpose Limitation
Answer: C
Explanation:
truncating the last octet of an IP address because it is not needed is an example of data minimization. Data minimization is a privacy principle that involves collecting and processing only the minimum amount of personal data necessary for a specific purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 107
SCENARIO
Kyle is a new security compliance manager who will be responsible for coordinating and executing controls to ensure compliance with the company's information security policy and industry standards. Kyle is also new to the company, where collaboration is a core value. On his first day of new-hire orientation, Kyle's schedule included participating in meetings and observing work in the IT and compliance departments.
Kyle spent the morning in the IT department, where the CIO welcomed him and explained that her department was responsible for IT governance. The CIO and Kyle engaged in a conversation about the importance of identifying meaningful IT governance metrics. Following their conversation, the CIO introduced Kyle to Ted and Barney. Ted is implementing a plan to encrypt data at the transportation level of the organization's wireless network. Kyle would need to get up to speed on the project and suggest ways to monitor effectiveness once the implementation was complete. Barney explained that his short-term goals are to establish rules governing where data can be placed and to minimize the use of offline data storage.
Kyle spent the afternoon with Jill, a compliance specialist, and learned that she was exploring an initiative for a compliance program to follow self-regulatory privacy principles. Thanks to a recent internship, Kyle had some experience in this area and knew where Jill could find some support. Jill also shared results of the company's privacy risk assessment, noting that the secondary use of personal information was considered a high risk.
By the end of the day, Kyle was very excited about his new job and his new company. In fact, he learned about an open position for someone with strong qualifications and experience with access privileges, project standards board approval processes, and application-level obligations, and couldn't wait to recommend his friend Ben who would be perfect for the job.
Which data practice is Barney most likely focused on improving?
- A. Inventory.
- B. Sharing
- C. Deletion
- D. Retention.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Barney is leading a project to improve the organization's data practices and has implemented a new policy that requires all employees to delete any data that is no longer needed for business purposes. This suggests that Barney is most likely focused on improving the organization's data deletion practices.
NEW QUESTION # 108
What is typically NOT performed by sophisticated Access Management (AM) techniques?
- A. Restricting access to data based on location.
- B. Preventing certain types of devices from accessing data.
- C. Restricting access to data based on user role.
- D. Preventing data from being placed in unprotected storage.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 109
SCENARIO
It should be the most secure location housing data in all of Europe, if not the world. The Global Finance Data Collective (GFDC) stores financial information and other types of client data from large banks, insurance companies, multinational corporations and governmental agencies. After a long climb on a mountain road that leads only to the facility, you arrive at the security booth. Your credentials are checked and checked again by the guard to visually verify that you are the person pictured on your passport and national identification card. You are led down a long corridor with server rooms on each side, secured by combination locks built into the doors. You climb a flight of stairs and are led into an office that is lighted brilliantly by skylights where the GFDC Director of Security, Dr. Monique Batch, greets you. On the far wall you notice a bank of video screens showing different rooms in the facility. At the far end, several screens show different sections of the road up the mountain Dr. Batch explains once again your mission. As a data security auditor and consultant, it is a dream assignment: The GFDC does not want simply adequate controls, but the best and most effective security that current technologies allow.
"We were hacked twice last year," Dr. Batch says, "and although only a small number of records were stolen, the bad press impacted our business. Our clients count on us to provide security that is nothing short of impenetrable and to do so quietly. We hope to never make the news again." She notes that it is also essential that the facility is in compliance with all relevant security regulations and standards.
You have been asked to verify compliance as well as to evaluate all current security controls and security measures, including data encryption methods, authentication controls and the safest methods for transferring data into and out of the facility. As you prepare to begin your analysis, you find yourself considering an intriguing question: Can these people be sure that I am who I say I am?
You are shown to the office made available to you and are provided with system login information, including the name of the wireless network and a wireless key. Still pondering, you attempt to pull up the facility's wireless network, but no networks appear in the wireless list. When you search for the wireless network by name, however it is readily found.
What measures can protect client information stored at GFDC?
- A. De-linking of data into client-specific packets.
- B. Data pruning
- C. Cloud-based applications.
- D. Server-side controls.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 110
SCENARIO
Clean-Q is a company that offers house-hold and office cleaning services. The company receives requests from consumers via their website and telephone, to book cleaning services. Based on the type and size of service, Clean-Q then contracts individuals that are registered on its resource database - currently managed in-house by Clean-Q IT Support. Because of Clean-Q's business model, resources are contracted as needed instead of permanently employed.
The table below indicates some of the personal information Clean-Q requires as part of its business operations:
Clean-Q has an internal employee base of about 30 people. A recent privacy compliance exercise has been conducted to align employee data management and human resource functions with applicable data protection regulation. Therefore, the Clean-Q permanent employee base is not included as part of this scenario.
With an increase in construction work and housing developments, Clean-Q has had an influx of requests for cleaning services. The demand has overwhelmed Clean-Q's traditional supply and demand system that has caused some overlapping bookings.
Ina business strategy session held by senior management recently, Clear-Q invited vendors to present potential solutions to their current operational issues. These vendors included Application developers and Cloud-Q's solution providers, presenting their proposed solutions and platforms.
The Managing Director opted to initiate the process to integrate Clean-Q's operations with a cloud solution (LeadOps) that will provide the following solution one single online platform: A web interface that Clean-Q accesses for the purposes of resource and customer management. This would entail uploading resource and customer information.
* A customer facing web interface that enables customers to register, manage and submit cleaning service requests online.
* A resource facing web interface that enables resources to apply and manage their assigned jobs.
* An online payment facility for customers to pay for services.
Considering that LeadOps will host/process personal information on behalf of Clean-Q remotely, what is an appropriate next step for Clean-Q senior management to assess LeadOps' appropriateness?
- A. Determine if any Clean-Q competitors currently use LeadOps as a solution.
- B. Obtain a legal opinion from an external law firm on contracts management.
- C. Involve the Information Security team to understand in more detail the types of services and solutions LeadOps is proposing.
- D. Nothing at this stage as the Managing Director has made a decision.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Given that LeadOps will host/process personal information on behalf of Clean-Q remotely, it is crucial to involve the Information Security team to understand in more detail the types of services and solutions LeadOps is proposing.
* Explanation:
* Security Assessment: The Information Security team should evaluate LeadOps' security measures, data protection practices, and compliance with relevant regulations. This assessment ensures that the service provider has adequate safeguards to protect personal information.
* Risk Management: Understanding the security environment helps identify potential risks associated with outsourcing data processing. This includes assessing encryption practices, data storage policies, and incident response plans.
* Vendor Due Diligence: Conducting thorough due diligence on LeadOps helps determine their capability to handle sensitive data securely. This can involve reviewing their security certifications, audits, and compliance with industry standards like ISO 27001.
* Legal and Compliance Considerations: Involving the Information Security team ensures that Clean-Q adheres to data protection regulations such as GDPR or CCPA, which require businesses to ensure their processors provide adequate data protection.
References:
* IAPP Privacy Management, Information Privacy Technologist Certification Textbooks
* ISO/IEC 27001 - Information Security Management Systems
* GDPR Articles 28 and 32
NEW QUESTION # 111
An organization is launching a new smart speaker to the market. The device will have the capability to play music and provide news and weather updates. Which of the following would be a concern from a privacy perspective?
- A. Context aware computing.
- B. Context of authority.
- C. Appropriation.
- D. Browser Fingerprinting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An organization launching a new smart speaker to the market that has the capability to play music and provide news and weather updates would have concerns about context aware computing rather than browser fingerprinting from a privacy perspective. Context aware computing involves using information about an individual's location or behavior to tailor their experience with technology. This can raise concerns about how personal data is collected and used without individuals' knowledge or consent.
NEW QUESTION # 112
An organization's customers have suffered a number of data breaches through successful social engineering attacks. One potential solution to remediate and prevent future occurrences would be to implement which of the following?
- A. Multi-factor authentication.
- B. Greater password complexity.
- C. Differential identifiability.
- D. Attribute-based access control.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification before granting access. This typically includes something the user knows (password), something the user has (security token), and something the user is (biometric verification). Implementing MFA helps to mitigate the risks of social engineering attacks, where attackers trick users into revealing their login credentials. By requiring an additional layer of verification, MFA significantly reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 113
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer next question:
EnsureClaim is developing a mobile app platform for managing data used for assessing car accident insurance claims. Individuals use the app to take pictures at the crash site, eliminating the need for a built-in vehicle camera. EnsureClaim uses a third-party hosting provider to store data collected by the app. EnsureClaim customer service employees also receive and review app data before sharing with insurance claim adjusters.
The app collects the following information:
First and last name
Date of birth (DOB)
Mailing address
Email address
Car VIN number
Car model
License plate
Insurance card number
Photo
Vehicle diagnostics
Geolocation
All of the following technical measures can be implemented by EnsureClaim to protect personal information that is accessible by third-parties EXCEPT?
- A. Access Controls.
- B. De-identification.
- C. Encryption.
- D. Multi-factor authentication.
Answer: B
Explanation:
While encryption, access controls, and multi-factor authentication are all technical measures that can protect personal information, de-identification specifically refers to the process of removing or modifying personal data so that individuals cannot be readily identified. Since EnsureClaim needs to provide personal data to third parties (such as insurance claim adjusters) for specific purposes (e.g., claim assessment), de-identification would not be appropriate as these third parties require access to identifiable information to perform their roles effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following techniques describes the use of encryption where encryption keys are divided into parts that can then be used to recover a full encryption key?
- A. Cryptographic hashing.
- B. Asymmetric cryptography.
- C. Homomorphic encryption.
- D. Secret sharing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secret sharing is the technique that describes the use of encryption where encryption keys are divided into parts that can then be used to recover a full encryption key. This method ensures that no single part of the key is sufficient to decrypt the data, thereby enhancing security. Secret sharing schemes are detailed in the IAPP's CIPT materials under cryptographic techniques, highlighting their application in securing sensitive information and managing encryption keys.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of these is considered an ethical dark pattern on privacy?
- A. Rewarding users for providing more personal information
- B. Giving users more privacy options in relation to their personal information
- C. Using attractive designs to influence an individual.
- D. Providing dear and simple privacy notices to users
Answer: A
Explanation:
rewarding users for providing more personal information is considered an unethical dark pattern on privacy. Dark patterns are user interface design choices that are intended to manipulate users into taking actions they might not otherwise take.
NEW QUESTION # 116
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