[Aug-2024] CISMP-V9 Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2024 BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0
Free CISMP-V9 Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily
BCS CISMP-V9 Certification Exam is a rigorous exam that requires candidates to have a deep understanding of the principles and practices of information security management. CISMP-V9 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and is taken over a period of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a score of at least 65% to pass the exam.
The CISMP-V9 certification exam covers a wide range of topics related to information security management, including risk management, security policies, access control, incident management, and business continuity. BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 certification exam is designed to help individuals develop a thorough understanding of the principles and best practices that are required to manage information security effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 21
When a digital forensics investigator is conducting art investigation and handling the original data, what KEY principle must they adhere to?
- A. Ensure they are competent to be able to do so and be able to justify their actions.
- B. Ensure the data has been adjusted to meet the investigation requirements.
- C. Ensure they do not handle the evidence as that must be done by law enforcement officers.
- D. Ensure they are being observed by a senior investigator in all actions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key principle a digital forensics investigator must adhere to is ensuring competence and the ability to justify their actions. This is crucial because the integrity of the investigation and the evidence must be maintained. Competence ensures that the investigator has the necessary skills and knowledge to handle and analyze the data correctly. Being able to justify their actions is important for the legal process, as every step of the investigation may be scrutinized in court. This principle aligns with the Information Security Management Principles, which emphasize the importance of procedural/people security controls and technical security controls to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. References: BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles1.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which term describes the acknowledgement and acceptance of ownership of actions, decisions, policies and deliverables?
- A. Accountability.
- B. Responsibility.
- C. Credibility.
- D. Confidentiality.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Accountability is the term that describes the acknowledgement and acceptance of ownership of actions, decisions, policies, and deliverables. It implies that an individual or organization is willing to take responsibility for their actions and the outcomes of those actions, and is answerable to the relevant stakeholders. This concept is fundamental in information security management, as it ensures that individuals and teams are aware of their roles and the expectations placed upon them, particularly in relation to the protection of information assets. Accountability cannot be delegated; while tasks can be assigned to others, the ultimate ownership and obligation to report and justify the outcomes remain with the accountable party.
References: = The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of accountability within the context of information security management. It is a key principle that supports the governance of information security and the management of risks associated with information assets1.
NEW QUESTION # 23
When a digital forensics investigator is conducting art investigation and handling the original data, what KEY principle must they adhere to?
- A. Ensure they are competent to be able to do so and be able to justify their actions.
- B. Ensure the data has been adjusted to meet the investigation requirements.
- C. Ensure they do not handle the evidence as that must be done by law enforcement officers.
- D. Ensure they are being observed by a senior investigator in all actions.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 24
What physical security control would be used to broadcast false emanations to mask the presence of true electromagentic emanations from genuine computing equipment?
- A. Faraday cage.
- B. Unshielded cabling.
- C. White noise generation.
- D. Copper infused windows.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
In order to better improve the security culture within an organisation with a top down approach, which of the following actions at board level is the MOST effective?
- A. Appointment of a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO).
- B. Purchasing all senior executives personal firewalls.
- C. Developing a security awareness e-learning course.
- D. Adopting an organisation wide "clear desk" policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Appointing a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is the most effective action at the board level to improve the security culture within an organization using a top-downapproach. The CISO plays a critical role in establishing and maintaining the enterprise vision, strategy, and program to ensure information assets and technologies are adequately protected. The CISO is responsible for leading the development and implementation of a security program across all aspects of the organization, which includes aligning security initiatives with business objectives, managing risk, and ensuring compliance with relevant laws and regulations. This strategic role not only helps in creating a robust security posture but also promotes a culture of security awareness throughout the organization. By having a dedicated executive responsible for security, it sends a clear message that the organization prioritizes information security and is committed to protecting its assets and stakeholders.
References: = The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of leadership and governance in the context of information security management, which includes the appointment of key roles such as the CISO1. Additionally, industry best practices and guidelines often recommend the appointment of a CISO as a critical step in fostering a strong security culture from the top down23.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is an accepted strategic option for dealing with risk?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Forbearance.
- C. Correction.
- D. Detection.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
When considering outsourcing the processing of data, which two legal "duty of care" considerations SHOULD the original data owner make?
1 Third party is competent to process the data securely.
2. Observes the same high standards as data owner.
3. Processes the data wherever the data can be transferred.
4. Archive the data for long term third party's own usage.
- A. 1 and 2.
- B. 3 and 4.
- C. 2 and 3.
- D. 1 and 4.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 28
How might the effectiveness of a security awareness program be effectively measured?
1) Employees are required to take an online multiple choice exam on security principles.
2) Employees are tested with social engineering techniques by an approved penetration tester.
3) Employees practice ethical hacking techniques on organisation systems.
4) No security vulnerabilities are reported during an audit.
5) Open source intelligence gathering is undertaken on staff social media profiles.
- A. 3, 4 and 5.
- B. 2, 4 and 5.
- C. 1, 2 and 3.
- D. 1, 2 and 5.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 29
How does network visualisation assist in managing information security?
- A. Visualisation software operates in a way that is rarely and thereby it is less prone to malware infection.
- B. Visualisation offers unstructured data that records the entirety of the data in a flat, filterable ftle format.
- C. Visualisation can communicate large amounts of data in a manner that is a relatively simple way for people to analyse and interpret.
- D. Visualisation provides structured tables and lists that can be analysed using common tools such as MS Excel.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network visualization is a powerful tool in managing information security as it can transform complex data sets into visual formats that are easier to understand and analyze. This is particularly useful in cybersecurity, where large volumes of data need to be monitored for potential security threats. Effective data visualization can provide meaningful insights into network security data, helping analysts to quickly identify patterns, anomalies, and trends that may indicate security incidents12.
While options B and C are methods of data analysis, they do not leverage the unique capabilities of visualization for rapid interpretation of security data. Option D is incorrect because the operation of visualization software does not inherently reduce malware infection risks; it's the insights gained from visualization that can assist in proactive threat detection and management12.
References :=
* Effective Data Visualization in Cybersecurity, IEEE Conference1.
* A Survey of Visualization Systems for Network Security, IEEE Transactions2.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Once data has been created In a standard information lifecycle, what step TYPICALLY happens next?
- A. Data Storage.
- B. Data Archiving.
- C. Data Publication
- D. Data Deletion.
Answer: A
Explanation:
After data creation, the typical next step in the standard information lifecycle is data storage. This phase involves securing the data in a storage solution where it can be accessed, managed, and protected effectively.
Proper data storage ensures that data remains intact and available for future processing and analysis. It is a critical step before data can be used for any operational or analytical purposes, and precedes other stages such as archiving or deletion, which occur later in the lifecycle123.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles includes the understanding of the information lifecycle as part of its syllabus, emphasizing the importance of each stage, including data storage4. This is supported by industry practices and standards that outline the data lifecycle stages, as found in resources like the Harvard Business School Online's insights on the data lifecycle1, and other data management guides23.
NEW QUESTION # 31
In business continuity, what is a battle box?
- A. A collection of tools and protective equipment to be used in the event of civil disturbance.
- B. A portable container that holds Items and information useful in the event of an organisational disaster.
- C. An armoured box that holds all an organisation's backup databases.
- D. A list of names and addresses of staff to be utilised should industrial action prevent access to a building.
http://www.battlebox.biz/why.asp
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is NOT an information security specific vulnerability?
- A. Unpatched Windows operating system.
- B. Use of HTTP based Apache web server.
- C. Confidential data stored in a fire safe.
- D. Use of an unlocked filing cabinet.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 33
A security analyst has been asked to provide a triple A service (AAA) for both wireless and remote access network services in an organization and must avoid using proprietary solutions.
What technology SHOULD they adapt?
- A. Oauth.
- B. MS Access Database.
- C. RADIUS.
- D. TACACS+
Answer: C
Explanation:
The AAA service, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, is essential for managing user access to network resources. When it comes to providing AAA services for both wireless and remote access network services in a non-proprietarymanner, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is the most suitable technology.
RADIUS is an open standard protocol widely used for network access authentication and accounting. It is supported by a variety of network vendors and devices, making it a non-proprietary solution that can be easily integrated into different network environments. RADIUS provides a centralized way to authenticate users, authorize their access levels, and keep track of their activity on the network1.
* TACACS+ is a Cisco proprietary protocol and therefore does not meet the requirement of avoiding proprietary solutions.
* OAuth is a framework for authorization and is not typically used for network access control in the same way that RADIUS is.
* MS Access Database is not a network authentication protocol and would not provide the necessary AAA services for network security.
References: The information provided here is based on the principles of AAA services as outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles and supported by industry-standard practices for non-proprietary network security solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is NOT an accepted classification of security controls?
- A. Detective.
- B. Corrective.
- C. Nominative.
- D. Preventive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security controls are measures taken to safeguard an information system from attacks or to mitigate the impact of a breach. They are commonly classified into three main categories: preventive, detective, and corrective.
Preventive controls aim to prevent incidents before they occur, detective controls are designed to discover and detect security events, and corrective controls are intended to restore systems to normal operation after an incident. The term "nominative" is not recognized as a standard classification of security controls within the principles of information security management. Instead, the accepted classifications align with the objectives of protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the categorization, operation, and effectiveness of controls of different types and characteristics, which does not include "nominative" as a classification1.
NEW QUESTION # 35
How does the use of a "single sign-on" access control policy improve the security for an organisation implementing the policy?
- A. Access control logs are centrally located.
- B. Decreases the complexity of passwords users have to remember.
- C. Password is better encrypted for system authentication.
- D. Helps prevent the likelihood of users writing down passwords.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single sign-on (SSO) is an access control policy that allows users to authenticate with multiple applications and services by logging in only once. This approach improves security by reducing the number of credentials users must manage, which in turn decreases the likelihood of users writing down passwords. When users have to remember multiple complex passwords, they are more likely to write them down, use simple passwords, or repeat the same password across different services, all of which are security risks. SSO simplifies the login process, which can lead to stronger, unique passwords and reduce the risk of password-related breaches.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a comprehensive overview of information security management, including the effectiveness of different types of controls, which supports the understanding of how SSO can enhance an organization's security posture1.
NEW QUESTION # 36
When seeking third party digital forensics services, what two attributes should one seek when making a choice of service provider?
- A. Formal certification to ISO/IEC 27001 and alignment with ISO 17025.
- B. Clean credit references as well as international experience.
- C. Appropriate company accreditation and staff certification.
- D. Affiliation with local law enforcement bodies and local government regulations.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
James is working with a software programme that completely obfuscates the entire source code, often in the form of a binary executable making it difficult to inspect, manipulate or reverse engineer the original source code.
What type of software programme is this?
- A. Proprietary Source.
- B. Interpreted Source.
- C. Open Source.
- D. Free Source.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
A penetration tester undertaking a port scan of a client's network, discovers a host which responds to requests on TCP ports 22, 80, 443, 3306 and 8080.
What type of device has MOST LIKELY been discovered?
- A. Printer.
- B. Firewall.
- C. File server.
- D. Web server
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ports discovered during the port scan are indicative of the services that are likely running on the device.
Here's a breakdown of what each port typically signifies:
* TCP port 22: This is commonly used for Secure Shell (SSH) which is used for secure logins, file transfers (scp, sftp) and port forwarding.
* TCP port 80: This port is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web; essentially, it's the standard port for web traffic.
* TCP port 443: This is used for HTTP Secure (HTTPS). It's the protocol for secure communication over a computer network within a web browser, providing a secure version of HTTP.
* TCP port 3306: This is the default port for the MySQL database, which is often used in conjunction with web applications.
* TCP port 8080: This is an alternative to port 80 and is used for web traffic, particularly for proxy and caching.
Given this information, the most likely type of device is a Web server, as it uses these ports for web traffic, secure communication, and potentially for a database that supports web applications.
References: The information provided here is based on common networking standards and practices, which are part of the foundational knowledge of Information Security Management Principles as outlined by BCS and other information security frameworks12.
NEW QUESTION # 39
What Is the PRIMARY security concern associated with the practice known as Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) that might affect a large organisation?
- A. Most BYOD involves the use of non-Windows hardware which is intrinsically insecure and open to abuse.
- B. Under GDPR it is illegal for an individual to use a personal device when handling personal information under corporate control.
- C. Privately owned end user devices are not provided with the same volume nor frequency of security patch updates as a corporation.
- D. The organisation has significantly less control over the device than over a corporately provided and managed device.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary security concern with BYOD is the reduced level of control an organization has over employees' personal devices compared to corporately owned and managed devices. This lack of control can lead to inconsistent security practices, such as irregular updates, lack of standardized security software, and potential for data leakage if the device is lost or compromised. BYOD policies must address these challenges by implementing security measures that protect corporate data while respecting users' privacy on their personal devices123.
References :=
* The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of managing information risk and implementing comprehensive security controls, which are particularly relevant for BYOD policies1.
* Literature on BYOD security risks and mitigation strategies provides insights into the challenges and best practices for managing personal devices in a corporate environment2.
* Reviews of security access control policies and techniques based on privacy requirements in a BYOD
* environment offer a systematic approach to addressing BYOD security concerns3.
NEW QUESTION # 40
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BCS CISMP-V9 certification exam is suitable for a wide range of professionals, including IT managers, security managers, compliance officers, risk managers, and business continuity managers. CISMP-V9 exam is also suitable for professionals who are looking to move into the field of information security management. BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 certification is recognized by employers and can help candidates to advance their careers in the field of information security management.
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